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Old 01-05-2010, 03:57 PM
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CielDuMatin CielDuMatin is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2009
Location: Upstate New York, USA
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Originally Posted by Ravenesque View Post
The preference is also heterosexually biased.
I did not see anything in the quoted text or any of the articles I have seen to imply that it is heterosexually biased. They talk about "marriage-like" (which in my mind would include same sex, given my understanding of the laws in Canada), and say that they would like at least one MFF configuration.

What have you seen to make you feel that this is hetero-biased?

But unless they are taking a sample from every form of polyamorous relationship, I don't see how their actions could establish a legal definition which reflected polyamorists without a skew in any one direction.
I think that would be very very hard to do, since everyone does poly differently (and should) - how do you split the poly community into representative groups in order to pick a sample from every form of polyamorous relationship? Who decides how those groupings should be laid-out? Doesn't defining those groups cause an automatic skewing or over-classification?

"Listen, or your tongue will make you deaf." - Native American Proverb

Last edited by CielDuMatin; 01-05-2010 at 04:00 PM.
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