Ok, I swore I wasn't going to do this but it is just too ridiculous to not comment on.
So London, let me get this straight. By your logic, my husband had no right to change his mind about having sex with his friend because she has a incurable STD, because by doing so, he was "discriminating" against her.
So you are saying that my husband has no sexual agency, that he is obligated to sleep with any woman who wants him, no matter what the risks to his health could be.
Tell me, have you yourself knowingly started a sexual relationship with a person with genital herpes? How about HIV? If not, why not?