Originally Posted by BaggagePatrol
So if it is not an implication that the relationship is over if she doesn't get one-on-one sexy times with the husband, how is it that it's an implication that she could do this if she did get one-on-one sexy times with the husband. Is it not one and the same? If the relationship is over if she doesn't get that, but isn't over if she does get it, how is it not an ultimatum?
Ultimatum: "A final demand or statement of terms, the rejection of which will result in retaliation or a breakdown in relations."
Except at no point did the gf say 'or else' Boringguy is correct in that, she (the gf) stated that she is ending it and when asked
she said why. That is stating a fact, not giving an ultimatum.
In fact the OP also said
i told him that he can have sex with her without me.
, her husband, there is no evidence yet that the gf has even been told this has been decided. There is no ultimatum.