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Old 09-21-2012, 10:25 AM
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nycindie nycindie is offline
Join Date: Nov 2010
Location: The Big Apple
Posts: 8,043

I ask because I was called homophobic for not being attracted to bisexual men, I guess mostly because I admitted to the fact that there have been instances where I was attracted to a certain man but lost the attraction when I found out he was bi. Does that make it worse than if I had never been attracted to him in the first place? What I am trying to get at is this: is it really right to say that any person, regardless of their own orientation, is homophobic if they are not attracted to bisexual people?
The world opens up... when you do.

"Oh, oh, can't you see? Love is the drug for me." ~Bryan Ferry
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An excellent blog post on hierarchy in polyamory:
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