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Old 09-21-2012, 10:25 AM
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nycindie nycindie is offline
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I ask because I was called homophobic for not being attracted to bisexual men, I guess mostly because I admitted to the fact that there have been instances where I was attracted to a certain man but lost the attraction when I found out he was bi. Does that make it worse than if I had never been attracted to him in the first place? What I am trying to get at is this: is it really right to say that any person, regardless of their own orientation, is homophobic if they are not attracted to bisexual people?
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An excellent blog post against hierarchy in polyamory: http://solopoly.net/2014/10/31/why-i...short-version/
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