Originally Posted by nycindie
This question came to me today, while thinking of this thread: Would a gay man be called homophobic if he says he is not attracted to bi women? If not, then why is a straight woman homophobic if she's not attracted to bi men? Can we just interchange these terms to see where we align ourselves?
I don't understand your question. A gay man isn't attracted to women, and orientation doesn't play a part. In the case of the straight woman not being attracted to bi men, her lack of attraction is the result of the other person's orientation, not her own. Completely different situation, it seems to me.