Originally Posted by neegoola
there is no evidence in the gospel that they were lovers, yes.
?at that time poligamy was common in Palestina and neighbouring?
No, I am saying there *is* evidence they were lovers, or married. If you take Mary Magdalene and Mary of Bethany, and one unnamed woman as one figure (and taken as myth, they certainly are), the interactions between them and Jesus indicate deep intimacy. The pouring of the oil anointing Jesus (for the traditional sacred marriage rite to precede his sacrificial death), the way Jesus approaches the sisters of Lazarus of Bethany, Mary's M's wiping Jesus' feet with her HAIR, her intimacy with him at the cross and his resurrected self at his tomb, the idea that she is the Holy Grail, carrying his child, all indicate a consort role for this Mary.
This is just in the canonical gospels alone. The evidence in gnostic gospels is even stronger, but they were banned, partly because gnostic Christianity was too feminist and esoteric for the goals of Constantine and later Roman rulers.